Sextus
TKECould you explain further for me. Why is the "me" needed in "Me gusta..."?
"Me" is the indirect object in this example; the formula is: "sujeto (algo/alguien) + gusta + a + objeto indirecto (alguien)". The indirect object (in Latin we call it the "dative case") of "yo" is "me". The problem for you is probably that this is not the way one says it in English.
In any case, when we're talking about people, we can also use this formula: "sujeto (alguien) + gusta + de + objeto indirecto (alguien)". For example: "Yo gusto de Verónica", which means "I like Verónica" or "I'm fond of Verónica". "Yo gusto de Verónica" means the same as "Me gusta Verónica".
I asked my Spanish teacher via email and she answered this way...
"Gustar isn't a normal AR verb...well, it's conjugated like a normal AR verb, but it really means TO BE PLEASING. Therefore, the subject of GUSTAR isn't the person, but the thing being liked, the thing that's pleasing. The phrase ME GUSTA LA LECHE literally means the milk is pleasing TO ME. Just as TE GUSTA LA LECHE means the milk is pleasing to you. Gustar uses indirect object pronouns."
I'm sure Sextus said the same thing but it helps to see it explained more than one way.