Use of direct and indirect objects with infinative

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Ken In San Jo  #30186  Thu, 20 Mar 08 06:10 PM

Is there a rule for the word order of objects when using them with an infinative?  Is it better to put the object (s) before or after the infinative verb?  I tend to put the an object after the infinative, but I don't know what is best.

 ¡Gracias!

 

  
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Pucca  #30190  Thu, 20 Mar 08 06:50 PM
Hey Ken! Welcome back!

Can you give us a couple of sentences as examples? Smile   It might be easier..
  
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Ken In San Jo  #30192  Thu, 20 Mar 08 07:04 PM

 

These are two that come to mind.

no puedo hacerlo o no lo puedo hacer

puedo verlo  o lo puedo ver

 

  

  
Pucca  #30194  Thu, 20 Mar 08 07:16 PM
I guess there are no problems with direct objects.   There is not a better one, you can use the one you prefer

 

José dió un beso a María.

"un beso" es complemento directo, y "a María" es complemento indirecto.

Ejemplo de Qaz.   ¿Cómo dirías eso, Ken?Smile

  
Ken In San Jo  #30263  Mon, 24 Mar 08 06:11 AM

I'd say Joe gave a kiss to Mary. Thank you for the answer. I guess it doesn't really matter. It is just the way maybe it sounds better

¡Hasta pronto!

  
Nube Pequeña  #31272  Mon, 28 Apr 08 11:49 PM
Hola Ken.
I believe that it's a quite different in negative form.
In the example you made, if I'd say:

1) No puedo hacerlo
2) No lo puedo hacer

don't you think that the 1st sounds better than the 2nd? I believe so.(:)) Smile
I don't know if there's a rule about this but I'd prefer use the 1st one.

Take care.
  
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Ken In San Jo  #31286  Tue, 29 Apr 08 11:07 PM

I would use the 1st one also.  To me it sounds better.

  
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