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Complemento directo vs. Complemento indirecto

Esto es una discusión · 12 respuestas
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Anonymous:
I'm learning Spanish at school and I was wondering where the differences where, they are almost same!

Help me out, please!
I would not say that direct object and inderect object is the same but I'm not sure if I can explain the difference. And neither am I sure what your doubt is exactly. But one thing is sure and that is, that you can't have an indirect object qithout a direct object.
Miembro Senior1,098
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Anonymous:
Can anyone give a sentence as an example?

I have the same..difficulty!
El niño come filetes.
"filetes" es complemento directo
La madre da filetes al niño.
"filetes" es complemento directo también, y "al niño" es complemento indirecto.
José dió un beso a María.
"un beso" es complemento directo, y "a María" es complemento indirecto.
Juan llevó a Pedro en coche.
"a Pedro" es complemento directo.

El complemento indirecto siempre lleva "a". El directo solo con personas.
Miembro Pleno613
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Anonymous:
-quiero dar la comida(c.d) a los perros(c.i)
-quiero darsela
It's a little bit difficult but you can search on google for the explanation of the complemento directo y complemento indirecto.
Anonymous:
That is very interesting. I never thought about it. So when there is no direct object, the indirect object takes the place of the direct object.
Example. I call Juan. Yo llamo a Juan. Juan is my indirect object but as there is no direct object, Juan takes the place of the direct object. Indirect objects always start with the preposition a.
I get really confsued about this also sometimes
but the way i understood some of it was your changing the object and it stops you repeating so much
Usuario Principiante18
I'm not positive about that remark that you can't have an indirect object without a direct object. What I am sure of is that the direct object may be it and only implied and not written. I'm thinking about verbs such as hablar and short commands.

Digale. Tell him. (the direct object is it or whateverever you are actually supposed to say to him).

Les hablé ayer. (I was speaking to them yesterday). (The direct object being whatever I was speaking to them about).

My point is that if you see an indirect object pronoun in a sentence, don't always expect to see a direct object or a D..O. pronoun in the sentence.
Usuario Principiante12
As it has been explained to me (by a native Spaniard), you cannot have the i.o. clarification (prepositional phrase) with using a redundant (i.o. pronoun).

it would be necessary to write:

La madre le da filetes al niño.
José le dio un beso a María.

They refer to this as an introductory pronoun warning you to look for that clarifying prepostional phrase (a....)

Personally, I had never heard of the rule, but upon looking for it's usage in reading I believe it to be true. Their rule simply stated that if there is a i.o. in the sentence there should always be an i.o. pronoun. Just take it as a suggestion until you verify the rule.
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